Oh heck. I'm frozen. Unable to get over a hermeneutical hurdle. I do not want my essay to get stuck on one small personal pronoun but I feel I have to come to some conclusions about it.
Paul has considered his state alongside that of the Ephesians for twelve verses now with his inclusive pronouns, 'we', 'us', 'our'...he now speaks of the seal and the pledge of the Holy Spirit and addresses believers with 'you'. Is there a specific reason? Is he addressing the Ephesians (well, that's debated so better not state that so explicitly) the believers in Asia Minor? Is he now addressing just the Gentiles but doesn't this have implications for how we read the application of the other spiritual blessings? Is this swap of pronoun an...now what was that word...which really I should know...because I was an English teacher...an anacoluthon? Fee and O'Brien say one thing. Martin and Hoehner another. Oh 'eck!