24.3.09

Subtleties of the atonement

Has God acted as the subject (through Jesus Christ) to cover and forgive sins, removing the uncleanness or defilement of sin? He has absorbed all our sin into himself and dealt with it and its consequences (death) on the cross.

OR/AND (?)

Is God the object receiving the offering for sin (Jesus Christ's sacrifice) which then in some sense pacifies His anger and meets His holy need for justice? The reward being eternal life?

“Is the atoning sacrifice of Jesus on the Cross an expiation or a propitiation – or both?” What is the difference? If it is a propitiation is it then a penal substitutionary atonement? Has Jesus expiated my sins and removed them or did Jesus propitiate the wrath and anger of God against me?

Is it in fact both and expiate and propitiate should not be set against each other? Do some churches emphasize more the expiation and some more the propitiation, whilst still actually confessing both?

In 1935 Dodd, Bible translator, translated 'hilasmos' as expiation rather than propitiation. The RSV translates atonement as expiation rather than 'propitiation'. I use the NRSV. I also use the NIV. Neither of them make it clear with :He is the atoning sacrifice for our sins (1 John 2:2)

ESV and KJV - he is the propitiation

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A little background reading so we might mutually flourish when there are different opinions